Division of ideals


I have a couple of questions concerning algebraic number theory. Why does I contains J imply I divides J? Firstly assuming I contains J how do we know there exists a fractional ideal I' such that I'I=J and then how do we get that I' is actually an integral ideal?

Another problem I am having is in proving: if I is ideal and N(I)=p some prime p then I is prime ideal. So we assume A,B are ideals such that AB is contained in I. We want to show either A is contained in I or B is. Assuming the above then we know I divides AB. The proof then states that I=ABC some ideal C. I thought I divides AB means IC=AB for some ideal C not other way round. I get that we could multiply by C inverse to get I on its own but then C inverse is a fractional ideal.



I’m presuming that you’ve read the course notes at least twice or so at this point. So for your first question, it’s already assumed that we’ve shown that the non-zero fractional ideals form a group. This gives the existence of the I' you mention. But then
I'I\subset J\subset I, so each element of I' stabilizes the ideal I. This implies that every element of I' is an algebraic integer, i.e., that I' is an ideal.

For the statement about prime ideals, note that we are assuming the factorization theorem. So any I can be written

I=\prod P_i

for prime ideals P_i. But then

N(I)=\prod N(P_i).

Therefore, if N(I) is prime, only one P_i can occur.


Leave a Reply

Fill in your details below or click an icon to log in:

WordPress.com Logo

You are commenting using your WordPress.com account. Log Out / Change )

Twitter picture

You are commenting using your Twitter account. Log Out / Change )

Facebook photo

You are commenting using your Facebook account. Log Out / Change )

Google+ photo

You are commenting using your Google+ account. Log Out / Change )

Connecting to %s

%d bloggers like this: